Laboratory Interpretation and Special Studies
Laboratory tests turn a clinical suspicion into a number, but only a clinician who knows what each test measures, what moves it and how often it misleads can use that number well. Part II asks you to read a urinalysis, a CBC, a chemistry panel, a set of rheumatologic markers and a few special studies, and to decide what they mean for the patient in front of you. In practice, these results are often what tells a chiropractor that a "back pain" is a myeloma, a pyelonephritis or a spondyloarthropathy.
By the end of this chapter you can
- Interpret the physical, dipstick and microscopic urinalysis, including casts and crystals.
- Read a CBC, classify an anemia by MCV, and use iron studies, reticulocytes and the smear to narrow the cause.
- Interpret the white cell differential, platelet count, PT/INR, aPTT and ESR.
- Interpret electrolytes, glucose and HbA1c, renal function, the liver panel and the lipid panel.
- Use calcium, phosphorus and alkaline phosphatase patterns to separate metabolic bone diseases.
- Know the time course of troponin and other cardiac markers and interpret TSH and free T4.
- Interpret CRP, RF, anti-CCP, ANA patterns, HLA-B27, uric acid, PSA, tumor markers and infectious serology.
- Calculate sensitivity, specificity and predictive values, and explain how prevalence changes them.
- Recognize basic ECG, spirometry, DXA and nerve conduction and EMG findings, and decide when to order and when to refer.
Section 1Urinalysis
The urinalysis is cheap, fast and informative about the kidneys, the urinary tract and systemic metabolism. A clean catch midstream specimen, examined within about an hour or refrigerated, avoids contamination and the breakdown of cells and casts. The exam has three parts: physical, chemical (dipstick) and microscopic.
Physical examination
| Property | Normal | Abnormal and meaning |
|---|---|---|
| Color | Pale to amber yellow (urochrome) | Red: hematuria, hemoglobin, myoglobin, beets, rifampin (orange); tea or cola: myoglobin, bilirubin; very pale: dilute urine (diabetes insipidus, overhydration) |
| Clarity | Clear | Cloudy: pyuria, bacteria, phosphates in alkaline urine |
| Odor | Faint | Fruity: ketones; foul: infection |
| Specific gravity | About 1.005 to 1.030 | High: dehydration, glucosuria, contrast; low: diabetes insipidus, overhydration; fixed at about 1.010 (isosthenuria): chronic kidney disease, the kidney can neither concentrate nor dilute |
Dipstick (chemical) findings
| Test | Normal | Positive suggests | Pitfalls |
|---|---|---|---|
| pH | 4.5 to 8 (about 6) | Alkaline: urease producing organisms (Proteus), vegetarian diet, renal tubular acidosis; acid: high protein diet, acidosis | Standing urine becomes alkaline |
| Protein | Negative or trace | Glomerular disease, diabetic nephropathy, hypertension; over 3.5 g/day is nephrotic range | Dipstick detects mainly albumin and misses Bence Jones light chains of myeloma; transient after fever or exercise |
| Glucose | Negative | Blood glucose above the renal threshold of about 180 mg/dL (diabetes); also pregnancy, SGLT2 inhibitor drugs | Glucosuria with normal blood glucose suggests a tubular defect |
| Ketones | Negative | Diabetic ketoacidosis, starvation, low carbohydrate diet, prolonged vomiting | Detects acetoacetate, not beta hydroxybutyrate |
| Blood | Negative | Hematuria, hemoglobinuria, myoglobinuria | Positive dipstick with no red cells on microscopy means hemoglobin (hemolysis) or myoglobin (rhabdomyolysis) |
| Bilirubin | Negative | Conjugated hyperbilirubinemia: hepatitis, biliary obstruction | Absent in hemolytic jaundice (unconjugated bilirubin is protein bound and not filtered) |
| Urobilinogen | Small amount | Increased in hemolysis and hepatocellular disease | Absent in complete biliary obstruction |
| Nitrite | Negative | Gram negative bacteria (E. coli and other Enterobacterales) that reduce nitrate | Highly specific but insensitive; needs about 4 hours of bladder dwell |
| Leukocyte esterase | Negative | Pyuria (white cells): urinary tract infection, inflammation | Contamination by vaginal secretions |
Microalbuminuria (moderately increased albuminuria), a urine albumin to creatinine ratio of 30 to 300 mg/g, is below the dipstick threshold but is the earliest marker of diabetic nephropathy and an independent cardiovascular risk factor; people with diabetes are screened annually.
Microscopic examination
The sediment is examined under low and high power. More than about 3 red cells per high power field is hematuria; more than about 5 white cells per field is pyuria. Many squamous epithelial cells indicate a contaminated sample, while renal tubular epithelial cells suggest acute tubular necrosis. Dysmorphic red cells (misshapen from passage through the glomerulus) point to glomerular bleeding; uniform cells point to the lower tract (stone, tumor, infection). Sterile pyuria (white cells without growth on culture) suggests tuberculosis, chlamydia or gonorrhea, interstitial nephritis or a stone.
Casts are cylinders of Tamm Horsfall mucoprotein formed in the distal tubule and collecting duct, so anything trapped in them came from the kidney itself. They are the most localizing finding in the sediment.
| Cast | Meaning |
|---|---|
| Hyaline | Nonspecific; normal in small numbers, more with dehydration, exercise, diuretics |
| Red cell | Glomerulonephritis (nephritic syndrome: hematuria, hypertension, edema, oliguria) |
| White cell | Pyelonephritis (distinguishes it from cystitis), acute interstitial nephritis |
| Granular, "muddy brown" | Acute tubular necrosis (ischemia, nephrotoxins) |
| Waxy and broad | Advanced chronic kidney disease with stasis in dilated tubules |
| Fatty casts, oval fat bodies ("Maltese cross" under polarized light) | Nephrotic syndrome (heavy proteinuria, hypoalbuminemia, hyperlipidemia, edema) |
Read the urinalysis in three steps. Physical: color and specific gravity (fixed 1.010 means CKD). Dipstick: protein (albumin only), glucose (threshold about 180), ketones, blood (no red cells means myoglobin or hemoglobin), bilirubin and urobilinogen (jaundice type), nitrite and leukocyte esterase (infection). Microscopy: red cell casts mean glomerulonephritis, white cell casts pyelonephritis, muddy brown casts ATN, fatty casts nephrotic syndrome.
Section 2Hematology
The complete blood count
| Measure | Typical adult reference range | Notes |
|---|---|---|
| Hemoglobin | Men 13.5 to 17.5 g/dL; women 12.0 to 16.0 g/dL | Anemia below these values |
| Hematocrit | Men about 41 to 53 percent; women about 36 to 46 percent | Roughly three times hemoglobin |
| Red cell count | Men 4.5 to 5.9; women 4.1 to 5.1 million/µL | High relative to hemoglobin in thalassemia trait |
| MCV (mean corpuscular volume) | 80 to 100 fL | Classifies anemia: micro, normo, macrocytic |
| MCH and MCHC | MCH 27 to 33 pg; MCHC 32 to 36 g/dL | Low (hypochromic) in iron deficiency; high MCHC in hereditary spherocytosis |
| RDW (red cell distribution width) | About 11.5 to 14.5 percent | High (anisocytosis) in iron, B12 and folate deficiency; usually normal in thalassemia trait |
| Reticulocytes | About 0.5 to 1.5 percent | High in hemolysis and bleeding (marrow responding); low in production failure |
| White cells | About 4,500 to 11,000/µL | See differential |
| Platelets | About 150,000 to 400,000/µL | See below |
Anemia workup
Anemia is a sign, not a diagnosis. The first step is the MCV; the second is the reticulocyte count, which asks whether the marrow is responding (high: blood loss or hemolysis) or failing (low: deficiency, chronic disease, marrow disease).
| Iron study | Iron deficiency | Anemia of chronic disease | Thalassemia trait | Sideroblastic |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Serum iron | Low | Low | Normal | High |
| Ferritin (stores) | Low (most specific test) | Normal or high (acute phase reactant) | Normal | High |
| TIBC (transferrin) | High | Low | Normal | Normal or low |
| Transferrin saturation | Low (under about 15 percent) | Low or normal | Normal | High |
| RDW | High | Normal | Normal | Variable |
Iron deficiency is the most common anemia worldwide. In a man or postmenopausal woman, iron deficiency means gastrointestinal blood loss until proven otherwise (colon cancer, ulcer, NSAID gastropathy), so it always calls for referral. Anemia of chronic disease (inflammation, infection, malignancy, rheumatoid arthritis) is driven by hepcidin, which traps iron in macrophages; it is usually normocytic but may become mildly microcytic. In thalassemia trait, the red cell count is normal or high despite microcytosis (a Mentzer index, MCV divided by RBC count, under 13 favors thalassemia); hemoglobin electrophoresis shows increased HbA2 in beta thalassemia trait.
Macrocytic anemia with hypersegmented neutrophils (six or more lobes) is megaloblastic. Vitamin B12 deficiency raises both methylmalonic acid and homocysteine, and can cause subacute combined degeneration of the dorsal columns and lateral corticospinal tracts (loss of vibration and position sense, ataxia, spasticity, paresthesias), sometimes before anemia appears. Folate deficiency raises homocysteine only and spares the nervous system. Pernicious anemia (antibodies to intrinsic factor and parietal cells), vegan diet, gastric or ileal surgery, metformin and proton pump inhibitors cause B12 deficiency.
Hemolysis is signaled by a high reticulocyte count, high LDH, high unconjugated (indirect) bilirubin and low haptoglobin. A positive direct Coombs (antiglobulin) test means antibody coated red cells: autoimmune hemolysis (lupus, CLL, drugs) or transfusion reaction.
| Smear finding | Association |
|---|---|
| Schistocytes (fragmented cells) | Microangiopathic hemolysis: DIC, TTP, HUS, mechanical heart valves |
| Spherocytes | Hereditary spherocytosis, autoimmune hemolysis |
| Target cells | Thalassemia, liver disease, hemoglobin C, asplenia |
| Sickle cells | Sickle cell disease |
| Teardrop cells | Myelofibrosis, marrow infiltration |
| Bite cells, Heinz bodies | G6PD deficiency after oxidant stress |
| Howell Jolly bodies | Asplenia or splenic dysfunction |
| Basophilic stippling | Lead poisoning, thalassemia |
| Rouleaux (stacked coins) | High plasma protein: multiple myeloma |
| Auer rods | Acute myeloid leukemia |
| Smudge cells | Chronic lymphocytic leukemia |
White cell differential
| Cell | Approximate percent | Increased in |
|---|---|---|
| Neutrophils | 40 to 70 | Bacterial infection, stress, corticosteroids, tissue necrosis; a left shift (bands over about 10 percent) signals acute bacterial infection |
| Lymphocytes | 20 to 40 | Viral infection, mononucleosis (atypical lymphocytes), pertussis, chronic lymphocytic leukemia |
| Monocytes | 2 to 8 | Chronic infection (tuberculosis, endocarditis), recovery from infection |
| Eosinophils | 1 to 4 | Allergy, asthma, parasites, drug reactions, Addison disease, some malignancies |
| Basophils | 0 to 1 | Chronic myeloid leukemia, myeloproliferative disease |
Remember the order of normal frequency with "Never Let Monkeys Eat Bananas." Absolute neutrophil count under about 1,500/µL is neutropenia and under 500/µL carries severe infection risk. A very high count (over about 50,000) raises the question of leukemoid reaction versus leukemia; blasts in the peripheral blood suggest acute leukemia and require urgent referral.
Platelets and coagulation
Thrombocytopenia is a count under 150,000/µL. Surgical bleeding risk rises below about 50,000, and spontaneous bleeding (petechiae, purpura, mucosal bleeding) below about 10,000 to 20,000. Causes include immune thrombocytopenia, drugs (heparin induced thrombocytopenia, which paradoxically causes clotting), DIC, TTP, marrow failure and splenic sequestration. Thrombocytosis is usually reactive (iron deficiency, inflammation, after splenectomy) but can be a myeloproliferative neoplasm.
| Test | Measures | Normal | Prolonged by |
|---|---|---|---|
| PT and INR | Extrinsic and common pathway (factors VII, X, V, II, fibrinogen) | PT about 11 to 13.5 s; INR about 1.0 | Warfarin (therapeutic INR usually 2 to 3), vitamin K deficiency, liver disease, DIC |
| aPTT | Intrinsic and common pathway (XII, XI, IX, VIII, X, V, II, fibrinogen) | About 25 to 35 s | Unfractionated heparin, hemophilia A (VIII) and B (IX), von Willebrand disease, lupus anticoagulant, DIC |
| Platelet function (bleeding time, PFA) | Platelet plug formation | Bleeding time about 2 to 9 min | Aspirin, NSAIDs, von Willebrand disease, uremia, thrombocytopenia |
| D dimer | Fibrin breakdown products | Low | Elevated in DVT, PE, DIC, surgery, pregnancy, cancer; high sensitivity, low specificity |
Factor VII has the shortest half life, so the PT is the first test to prolong with warfarin, vitamin K deficiency or early liver failure. DIC prolongs PT and aPTT, lowers platelets and fibrinogen, raises D dimer and produces schistocytes. A normal D dimer helps rule out DVT or PE when clinical probability is low; a positive one proves little.
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate
The ESR (Westergren method) measures how far red cells fall in a tube in one hour. Fibrinogen and immunoglobulins neutralize the negative surface charge of red cells, so they stack (rouleaux) and sink faster. A rough upper limit is age divided by 2 for men and (age plus 10) divided by 2 for women in mm/h. The ESR is a nonspecific marker of inflammation that rises slowly and stays up for weeks. It is elevated in infection (including osteomyelitis and discitis), inflammatory arthritis, malignancy, anemia, pregnancy, kidney disease and older age; it is very high (often over 100 mm/h) in multiple myeloma, giant cell arteritis, polymyalgia rheumatica and osteomyelitis. It is falsely low in polycythemia, sickle cell disease, spherocytosis and low fibrinogen states.
Classify anemia by MCV, then reticulocytes. Low ferritin with high TIBC is iron deficiency (look for GI bleeding); normal or high ferritin with low TIBC is chronic disease; microcytosis with normal iron and high RBC count is thalassemia trait; hypersegmented neutrophils with high methylmalonic acid is B12 deficiency. Hemolysis raises LDH and indirect bilirubin and lowers haptoglobin. PT/INR tracks warfarin and the extrinsic pathway, aPTT tracks heparin and hemophilia, and D dimer is a rule out test. The ESR is nonspecific but very high in myeloma, giant cell arteritis and polymyalgia rheumatica.
Section 3Clinical chemistry
The basic metabolic panel (electrolytes, glucose, BUN, creatinine, calcium) and the comprehensive panel (which adds the liver tests, albumin and total protein) are the most commonly ordered blood tests. Learn the reference ranges below as board values; individual laboratories vary slightly.
Electrolytes, glucose and renal function
| Analyte | Reference range | Key abnormalities |
|---|---|---|
| Sodium | 135 to 145 mEq/L | Hyponatremia: SIADH, thiazides, heart failure, cirrhosis, polydipsia (confusion, seizures); hypernatremia: water loss, diabetes insipidus |
| Potassium | 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L | Hyperkalemia: kidney failure, ACE inhibitors, potassium sparing diuretics, hemolyzed sample (peaked T waves, arrhythmia); hypokalemia: diuretics, vomiting, diarrhea (weakness, cramps, U waves) |
| Chloride | About 98 to 106 mEq/L | Used to calculate the anion gap |
| Bicarbonate (CO2) | 22 to 28 mEq/L | Low in metabolic acidosis; high in metabolic alkalosis (vomiting, diuretics) |
| BUN | About 7 to 20 mg/dL | High with renal failure, dehydration, GI bleeding, high protein intake; low in liver failure |
| Creatinine | About 0.6 to 1.2 mg/dL | Rises with falling GFR; higher with muscle mass |
| Fasting glucose | 70 to 99 mg/dL | See diabetes criteria below |
The anion gap equals sodium minus (chloride plus bicarbonate), normally about 8 to 12. A high anion gap metabolic acidosis suggests unmeasured acids: ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis, uremia, or toxins (methanol, ethylene glycol, salicylates). A BUN to creatinine ratio over 20 suggests a prerenal cause (dehydration, heart failure) or upper GI bleeding; a ratio near 10 to 15 with both elevated suggests intrinsic renal disease.
The estimated GFR, calculated from creatinine, age and sex, stages chronic kidney disease, defined as eGFR under 60 mL/min/1.73 m2 or markers of kidney damage (such as albuminuria) for more than 3 months. Stages run from G1 (90 or more, with damage) through G3a (45 to 59), G3b (30 to 44) and G4 (15 to 29) to G5, under 15 (kidney failure). Because creatinine rises only after substantial nephron loss, a "normal" creatinine in a small elderly woman may hide a low GFR. eGFR matters for drug dosing, contrast imaging and NSAID advice.
| Diabetes test | Normal | Prediabetes | Diabetes |
|---|---|---|---|
| Fasting plasma glucose (8 hours) | Under 100 mg/dL | 100 to 125 (impaired fasting glucose) | 126 or more |
| 2 hour glucose on 75 g oral glucose tolerance test | Under 140 | 140 to 199 (impaired glucose tolerance) | 200 or more |
| HbA1c | Under 5.7 percent | 5.7 to 6.4 percent | 6.5 percent or more |
| Random glucose | 200 or more with classic symptoms (polyuria, polydipsia, weight loss) |
Without unequivocal hyperglycemia, a diagnosis needs two abnormal results (the same test twice or two different tests). HbA1c reflects average glucose over the life span of the red cell, roughly the previous 2 to 3 months; it reads falsely low when red cell turnover is fast (hemolysis, blood loss, recent transfusion) and falsely high in iron deficiency. A common treatment target is under 7 percent. Fasting hypoglycemia is glucose under about 70 mg/dL; symptoms (sweating, tremor, confusion) usually appear under about 55.
Liver panel
| Test | Approximate range | What it reflects |
|---|---|---|
| ALT | About 7 to 56 U/L | Hepatocellular injury; more liver specific than AST |
| AST | About 10 to 40 U/L | Hepatocellular injury; also in muscle, heart, red cells |
| Alkaline phosphatase | About 44 to 147 U/L | Cholestasis or bone turnover (also placenta, growing children) |
| GGT | Low tens of U/L | Raised with ALP of liver origin and with alcohol; normal when ALP comes from bone |
| Total and direct bilirubin | Total about 0.1 to 1.2 mg/dL; direct under 0.3 | Unconjugated: hemolysis, Gilbert syndrome; conjugated: hepatocellular disease, obstruction |
| Albumin | 3.5 to 5.0 g/dL | Synthetic function (slow, half life about 3 weeks); also low in nephrotic syndrome, malnutrition, inflammation |
| PT/INR | INR about 1.0 | Synthetic function (fast, reflects factor VII) |
Patterns matter more than single values. A hepatocellular pattern has transaminases raised out of proportion to ALP: viral hepatitis (ALT over AST, often in the hundreds to thousands), ischemic or acetaminophen injury (thousands), fatty liver disease (mild ALT elevation). An AST to ALT ratio over 2 suggests alcoholic liver disease. A cholestatic pattern has ALP and GGT raised out of proportion, with or without conjugated bilirubin: gallstones in the common duct, pancreatic head cancer, primary biliary cholangitis, drugs. An isolated high ALP with normal GGT points to bone.
Lipid panel
| Lipid | Desirable | Borderline | High |
|---|---|---|---|
| Total cholesterol | Under 200 mg/dL | 200 to 239 | 240 or more |
| LDL cholesterol | Under 100 (optimal) | 130 to 159 | 160 to 189; 190 or more very high (consider familial hypercholesterolemia) |
| HDL cholesterol | 60 or more is protective | Low: under 40 (men), under 50 (women) | |
| Triglycerides | Under 150 | 150 to 199 | 200 to 499; 500 or more raises pancreatitis risk |
LDL is often calculated with the Friedewald equation: LDL equals total cholesterol minus HDL minus triglycerides divided by 5 (in mg/dL), which is invalid when triglycerides exceed about 400. Non HDL cholesterol (total minus HDL) captures all atherogenic particles. Secondary causes of dyslipidemia include hypothyroidism, nephrotic syndrome, diabetes, cholestasis and drugs.
Calcium, phosphorus and alkaline phosphatase
Total serum calcium is about 8.5 to 10.5 mg/dL, of which roughly 40 percent is bound to albumin. Correct for a low albumin: corrected calcium equals measured calcium plus 0.8 times (4.0 minus albumin); ionized calcium is measured directly when precision matters. Phosphorus is about 2.5 to 4.5 mg/dL. Hypercalcemia causes "stones, bones, groans and psychiatric overtones" (kidney stones, bone pain, constipation and abdominal pain, confusion and depression) plus polyuria and a short QT. More than 90 percent of hypercalcemia is due to primary hyperparathyroidism (outpatients) or malignancy (inpatients).
| Condition | Calcium | Phosphorus | Alkaline phosphatase | PTH |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Primary hyperparathyroidism | High | Low | Normal or high | High (inappropriately) |
| Secondary hyperparathyroidism (CKD) | Low or normal | High | High | High |
| Hypoparathyroidism | Low | High | Normal | Low |
| Humoral hypercalcemia of malignancy (PTHrP) | High | Low | Normal or high | Low (suppressed) |
| Osteomalacia (vitamin D deficiency) | Low or normal | Low | High | High |
| Paget disease | Normal | Normal | Very high | Normal |
| Osteoporosis | Normal | Normal | Normal | Normal |
| Osteoblastic metastases (prostate) | Normal | Normal | High | Normal or low |
| Multiple myeloma | High | Normal | Normal (purely lytic, no osteoblastic response) | Low |
Cardiac markers
Cardiac troponin (I or T) is the marker of choice for myocardial injury: it begins to rise about 3 to 4 hours after onset (within 1 to 3 hours with high sensitivity assays), peaks at about 24 to 48 hours and remains elevated for 7 to 10 days or longer. A rise or fall above the 99th percentile with symptoms or ECG changes of ischemia defines myocardial infarction. CK-MB rises at 4 to 6 hours, peaks near 24 hours and returns to normal in 2 to 3 days, so it is useful for detecting reinfarction. Myoglobin rises earliest (1 to 2 hours) but is not cardiac specific. Total CK also rises with skeletal muscle injury: intramuscular injections, strenuous exercise, trauma, statin myopathy, rhabdomyolysis and muscular dystrophy. BNP (or NT-proBNP) is released by stretched ventricles; a BNP under about 100 pg/mL makes heart failure unlikely as the cause of dyspnea.
Thyroid tests
TSH (about 0.4 to 4.0 mIU/L) is the best single screening test for primary thyroid disease because pituitary output changes logarithmically with small changes in free hormone. Free T4 (about 0.8 to 1.8 ng/dL) then defines the disorder.
| TSH | Free T4 | Interpretation | Further tests |
|---|---|---|---|
| High | Low | Primary hypothyroidism (most often Hashimoto thyroiditis) | Anti-TPO antibodies |
| High | Normal | Subclinical hypothyroidism | Repeat; anti-TPO |
| Low | High | Primary hyperthyroidism (Graves disease, toxic nodule, thyroiditis) | TSH receptor antibodies (TSI); radioactive iodine uptake: diffuse high in Graves, focal in toxic nodule, low in thyroiditis or exogenous hormone |
| Low | Normal | Subclinical hyperthyroidism or T3 toxicosis | Free T3 |
| Low or normal | Low | Secondary (central) hypothyroidism, pituitary or hypothalamic disease | Other pituitary hormones, MRI |
Know the core ranges: sodium 135 to 145, potassium 3.5 to 5.0, bicarbonate 22 to 28, anion gap 8 to 12, creatinine about 0.6 to 1.2, fasting glucose under 100. Diabetes is fasting glucose 126 or more, 2 hour OGTT 200 or more, or HbA1c 6.5 percent or more. ALT is liver specific, AST over ALT by 2 to 1 suggests alcohol, and ALP with normal GGT points to bone. Primary hyperparathyroidism has high calcium with high PTH; osteomalacia low phosphorus with high ALP; Paget disease isolated very high ALP; osteoporosis normal labs. Troponin rises at 3 to 4 hours and lasts 7 to 10 days. TSH is the screening test for thyroid disease.
Section 4Serology and inflammatory and rheumatologic markers
Serologic tests are most useful when the pretest probability is moderate and the clinical picture is suggestive. Ordered indiscriminately for vague aches, they generate false positives that mislead. Always pair a marker with the history and examination.
Acute phase reactants
C reactive protein (CRP) is made by the liver under the influence of interleukin 6. It rises within 6 to 8 hours of an inflammatory stimulus, peaks at about 48 hours and falls quickly as inflammation resolves, so it tracks disease activity and treatment response better than the ESR. A standard CRP under about 1.0 mg/dL (10 mg/L) is usually normal; very high levels (over 10 mg/dL) suggest bacterial infection. High sensitivity CRP measures low levels for cardiovascular risk: under 1 mg/L low, 1 to 3 average, over 3 mg/L high risk. In septic arthritis, osteomyelitis and postoperative spinal infection, CRP and ESR are both raised, and a normal CRP makes vertebral osteomyelitis unlikely.
Rheumatoid arthritis markers
| Marker | What it is | Performance | Also positive in |
|---|---|---|---|
| Rheumatoid factor (RF) | Usually IgM antibody against the Fc portion of IgG | Positive in about 70 to 80 percent of established RA; modest specificity; higher titers predict more severe, extra-articular disease | Sjögren syndrome, lupus, hepatitis C, endocarditis, tuberculosis, sarcoidosis, healthy elderly |
| Anti-CCP (anticyclic citrullinated peptide) | Antibody to citrullinated proteins | Specificity about 95 percent, sensitivity similar to RF; may precede symptoms by years; predicts erosive disease | Rarely other conditions |
Antinuclear antibodies
The ANA, done by indirect immunofluorescence on cultured cells, is the screening test for systemic lupus erythematosus. It is positive in about 95 percent or more of SLE, so a negative ANA makes SLE very unlikely, but it is also positive at low titer in many healthy people (especially older women), in other connective tissue diseases, and with some drugs, so a positive ANA alone does not diagnose anything. Titers of 1:160 or higher are more meaningful than 1:40 or 1:80. The fluorescence pattern hints at the antigen, and specific antibody tests follow.
| Antibody | Disease association |
|---|---|
| Anti-dsDNA | SLE (specific); titers track activity and lupus nephritis |
| Anti-Smith (Sm) | SLE, the most specific marker, but insensitive |
| Antihistone | Drug induced lupus (hydralazine, procainamide, isoniazid) |
| Anti-Ro (SSA) and anti-La (SSB) | Sjögren syndrome, SLE; neonatal lupus and congenital heart block |
| Anti-U1 RNP | Mixed connective tissue disease |
| Anti-Scl-70 (topoisomerase I) | Diffuse systemic sclerosis, pulmonary fibrosis |
| Anticentromere | Limited cutaneous systemic sclerosis (CREST) |
| Anti-Jo-1 | Polymyositis and dermatomyositis with interstitial lung disease |
| c-ANCA (PR3) | Granulomatosis with polyangiitis |
| p-ANCA (MPO) | Microscopic polyangiitis, eosinophilic granulomatosis with polyangiitis, ulcerative colitis |
| Antimitochondrial | Primary biliary cholangitis |
| Anti-tissue transglutaminase IgA | Celiac disease |
In active lupus, complement (C3 and C4) falls as it is consumed by immune complexes.
HLA-B27
HLA-B27 is an MHC class I allele present in about 90 percent of white patients with ankylosing spondylitis and in a majority of those with reactive arthritis, and less often in psoriatic and enteropathic axial disease. But it is also carried by roughly 6 to 8 percent of the general white population, and most carriers never develop spondyloarthritis. Its positive predictive value is therefore low in unselected patients; it is useful only when inflammatory back pain (onset before 45, insidious, morning stiffness, improvement with exercise but not rest, night pain in the second half of the night) already makes the diagnosis plausible. A negative result lowers, but does not exclude, the probability.
Uric acid and synovial fluid
Serum urate is supersaturated above about 6.8 mg/dL. Hyperuricemia is common and usually asymptomatic, and the level may be normal during an acute gout attack; the diagnosis rests on finding needle shaped, negatively birefringent monosodium urate crystals in joint fluid. Calcium pyrophosphate crystals (pseudogout) are rhomboid and weakly positively birefringent. Long term urate lowering aims for under 6 mg/dL.
| Synovial fluid | Appearance | White cells per µL | Examples |
|---|---|---|---|
| Normal | Clear, viscous | Under 200 | |
| Noninflammatory | Clear, yellow | 200 to 2,000 | Osteoarthritis, trauma |
| Inflammatory | Cloudy | 2,000 to about 50,000 | Rheumatoid arthritis, gout, pseudogout, spondyloarthritis |
| Septic | Purulent | Usually over 50,000, over 75 percent neutrophils | Staphylococcus aureus, gonococcus (an emergency) |
| Hemorrhagic | Bloody | Variable | Trauma, fracture, hemophilia, anticoagulation |
PSA and tumor markers
Prostate specific antigen is organ specific but not cancer specific. A traditional cutoff is 4.0 ng/mL, with age adjusted values. PSA rises with prostate cancer, benign prostatic hyperplasia, prostatitis, urinary retention, ejaculation and instrumentation (a digital rectal exam raises it only slightly). A low percent free PSA (under about 10 percent) and a rapid rise over time favor cancer. Screening for men about 55 to 69 is an individual decision after discussion of benefits and harms. A man with a raised PSA and new low back pain needs evaluation for osteoblastic spinal metastases.
Most other tumor markers are too insensitive and nonspecific for screening and are used to support a diagnosis and monitor treatment or recurrence.
| Marker | Main association | Other causes of elevation |
|---|---|---|
| CEA | Colorectal cancer (monitoring) | Smoking, other GI cancers, inflammatory bowel disease |
| AFP | Hepatocellular carcinoma, nonseminomatous germ cell tumors | Pregnancy (neural tube defects), cirrhosis |
| Beta hCG | Choriocarcinoma, testicular germ cell tumors | Pregnancy |
| CA-125 | Ovarian cancer | Endometriosis, menstruation, peritoneal irritation |
| CA 19-9 | Pancreatic cancer | Biliary obstruction, pancreatitis |
| CA 15-3 and CA 27.29 | Breast cancer (monitoring) | Benign breast and liver disease |
| M protein on serum or urine protein electrophoresis, serum free light chains | Multiple myeloma, other plasma cell disorders | Monoclonal gammopathy of undetermined significance |
| Calcitonin | Medullary thyroid carcinoma | |
| LDH | Lymphoma, germ cell tumors (tumor burden) | Hemolysis, tissue injury |
Infectious serology
The heterophile antibody (Monospot) test detects infectious mononucleosis (EBV) but may be negative in the first week and in young children; EBV viral capsid antigen IgM confirms acute infection. The antistreptolysin O titer supports recent streptococcal infection (rheumatic fever, poststreptococcal glomerulonephritis). HIV screening uses a fourth generation antigen and antibody combination test (detects p24 antigen earlier than antibody alone), confirmed by a differentiation assay. Syphilis uses a nontreponemal test (RPR or VDRL), whose titer falls with treatment and which has false positives in lupus, antiphospholipid syndrome and pregnancy, and a treponemal test (FTA-ABS or TP-PA), which stays positive for life. Lyme disease uses a two tier approach (immunoassay, then confirmation). For tuberculosis infection, the tuberculin skin test is read as induration at 48 to 72 hours (positive at 5 mm or more in HIV, close contacts and the immunosuppressed; 10 mm or more in health care workers, recent immigrants and injection drug users; 15 mm or more in people without risk factors); interferon gamma release assays are not affected by prior BCG vaccination.
| Hepatitis B pattern | HBsAg | Anti-HBs | Anti-HBc | Interpretation |
|---|---|---|---|---|
| Acute infection | Positive | Negative | IgM positive | Recent infection (HBeAg indicates high infectivity) |
| Window period | Negative | Negative | IgM positive | Between loss of HBsAg and appearance of anti-HBs |
| Chronic infection | Positive (over 6 months) | Negative | IgG positive | Chronic carrier or chronic hepatitis |
| Resolved infection | Negative | Positive | IgG positive | Immune from natural infection |
| Vaccinated | Negative | Positive | Negative | Immune from vaccination (anti-HBs alone) |
Hepatitis C is screened with an antibody test; a positive result is followed by HCV RNA, since antibody persists after cleared infection.
CRP rises and falls quickly and tracks activity; the ESR is slower. RF is sensitive but nonspecific for RA, anti-CCP is specific. A negative ANA nearly excludes SLE; anti-dsDNA and anti-Smith are specific; antihistone means drug induced lupus; anticentromere means CREST. HLA-B27 accompanies most ankylosing spondylitis but is common in healthy people. Gout crystals are needles with negative birefringence, and urate may be normal during an attack. PSA is prostate specific but not cancer specific; most tumor markers are for monitoring. Anti-HBs alone means vaccination; IgM anti-HBc means acute hepatitis B.
Section 5Special studies and test logic
Reference ranges
A reference range is usually the central 95 percent of results in a healthy population (the mean plus or minus 2 standard deviations). By definition, 5 percent of healthy people fall outside it. Order 20 independent tests on a healthy person and the chance that at least one is "abnormal" is about 1 minus 0.95 to the 20th power, roughly 64 percent. Results just outside the range, in a patient without matching symptoms, are often noise; repeat or follow the trend before acting. Ranges also differ by age, sex, pregnancy, laboratory and method. A critical (panic) value is one that signals immediate danger and is phoned to the clinician.
Sensitivity, specificity and predictive values
Test performance is described with a 2 by 2 table comparing the test result with the true disease state (the reference or "gold" standard).
| Measure | Formula | Question it answers |
|---|---|---|
| Sensitivity | TP / (TP + FN) | Of people with the disease, what fraction test positive? |
| Specificity | TN / (TN + FP) | Of people without the disease, what fraction test negative? |
| Positive predictive value | TP / (TP + FP) | If the test is positive, how likely is disease? |
| Negative predictive value | TN / (TN + FN) | If the test is negative, how likely is no disease? |
| Positive likelihood ratio | Sensitivity / (1 minus specificity) | How much a positive result raises the odds of disease (over 10 is strong) |
| Negative likelihood ratio | (1 minus sensitivity) / specificity | How much a negative result lowers the odds (under 0.1 is strong) |
Two mnemonics capture the clinical use. SnNout: a highly Sensitive test, when Negative, rules out disease (few false negatives), which makes sensitive tests good for screening (D dimer, ANA, the straight leg raise for disc herniation). SpPin: a highly Specific test, when Positive, rules in disease (few false positives), which makes specific tests good for confirmation (anti-CCP, anti-Smith, the crossed straight leg raise).
Sensitivity and specificity are relatively stable properties of a test, but predictive values change with prevalence. As prevalence (pretest probability) falls, PPV falls and NPV rises; as prevalence rises, PPV rises. This is why screening a low risk population produces many false positives, and why the same positive result means more in a patient whose history already points to the disease. Moving the cutoff trades one property for the other: lowering the cutoff for a positive result raises sensitivity and lowers specificity. The receiver operating characteristic (ROC) curve plots sensitivity against 1 minus specificity across cutoffs; the larger the area under it, the better the test discriminates.
Related terms: accuracy (closeness to the true value), precision or reliability (reproducibility on repeated measurement; interexaminer reliability is often expressed as the kappa statistic), and validity (whether the test measures what it claims to). A test can be precise but inaccurate if it is consistently biased.
ECG basics
Standard ECG paper runs at 25 mm/s: one small (1 mm) box is 0.04 s and one large (5 mm) box is 0.20 s; 10 mm vertically equals 1 mV. Heart rate equals 300 divided by the number of large boxes between R waves (or 1,500 divided by small boxes); for irregular rhythms count the QRS complexes in a 6 second strip and multiply by 10.
| Finding | ECG feature | Meaning |
|---|---|---|
| Normal sinus rhythm | P before every QRS, rate 60 to 100, PR 0.12 to 0.20 s, QRS under 0.12 s | Normal |
| Atrial fibrillation | No P waves, irregularly irregular QRS | Stroke risk; anticoagulation decisions |
| First degree AV block | PR over 0.20 s, every P conducted | Usually benign |
| Second degree, Mobitz I (Wenckebach) | PR lengthens progressively until a QRS is dropped | AV nodal, usually benign |
| Second degree, Mobitz II | Constant PR with suddenly dropped QRS | Infranodal, may progress; pacemaker |
| Third degree (complete) block | P waves and QRS complexes independent (AV dissociation) | Emergency; cannon a waves, bradycardia |
| Bundle branch block | QRS 0.12 s or more | Conduction disease; new LBBB with chest pain is treated as infarction |
| ST elevation in contiguous leads | Elevated ST, later Q waves and T inversion | Acute transmural infarction: II, III, aVF inferior (right coronary); V1 to V4 anterior and septal (left anterior descending); I, aVL, V5, V6 lateral (circumflex) |
| ST depression, T inversion | Below baseline | Ischemia, strain, digoxin |
| Hyperkalemia | Peaked T, then wide QRS, sine wave | Emergency |
| Hypokalemia | Flat T, U waves | Arrhythmia risk |
| Hypercalcemia and hypocalcemia | Short QT and long QT | Check calcium |
| Left ventricular hypertrophy | Tall voltages (for example S in V1 plus R in V5 or V6 over 35 mm) | Hypertension, aortic stenosis |
Pulmonary function tests
Spirometry measures forced vital capacity (FVC), forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1) and their ratio. Lung volumes (total lung capacity, residual volume) need body plethysmography or gas dilution, and the diffusing capacity (DLCO) measures gas transfer across the alveolar capillary membrane.
| Pattern | FEV1/FVC | FEV1 | FVC | TLC | DLCO | Examples |
|---|---|---|---|---|---|---|
| Obstructive | Low (under 0.70) | Low | Normal or low | Normal or high (air trapping) | Low in emphysema; normal in asthma and chronic bronchitis | Asthma, COPD, bronchiectasis |
| Restrictive | Normal or high | Low | Low | Low (under 80 percent predicted) | Low in interstitial disease; normal in chest wall and neuromuscular causes | Pulmonary fibrosis, obesity, kyphoscoliosis, ankylosing spondylitis, neuromuscular weakness |
Asthma shows reversibility: an increase in FEV1 of at least 12 percent and 200 mL after a bronchodilator; COPD is not fully reversible. COPD severity is graded by FEV1 percent predicted (80 or more mild, 50 to 79 moderate, 30 to 49 severe, under 30 very severe). A peak flow meter allows home monitoring of asthma.
Bone density
Dual energy x-ray absorptiometry (DXA) of the lumbar spine and hip is the standard for diagnosing osteoporosis. The T score compares the patient with the peak bone mass of young healthy adults of the same sex, in standard deviations; the Z score compares with people of the same age.
| T score | Category |
|---|---|
| -1.0 or higher | Normal |
| Between -1.0 and -2.5 | Low bone mass (osteopenia) |
| -2.5 or lower | Osteoporosis |
| -2.5 or lower with a fragility fracture | Severe (established) osteoporosis |
A fragility fracture of the hip or spine establishes osteoporosis regardless of T score. The Z score is used in premenopausal women, men under 50 and children; a Z score of -2.0 or lower is "below the expected range for age" and should prompt a search for secondary causes (glucocorticoids, hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, malabsorption, myeloma, hypogonadism). Lumbar DXA can be falsely elevated by osteophytes, facet arthrosis, aortic calcification and compression fractures, which is why the hip is also measured. Screening is recommended for women 65 and older and for younger postmenopausal women at increased risk; the FRAX tool estimates 10 year fracture probability to guide treatment.
Nerve conduction studies and electromyography
Nerve conduction studies (NCS) stimulate a nerve and record the response, measuring latency, amplitude (number of functioning axons) and conduction velocity (myelin), normally about 50 to 60 m/s in the arms and 40 to 50 m/s in the legs. Demyelination slows velocity, prolongs latency and may cause conduction block (carpal tunnel syndrome with prolonged median distal latency, Guillain Barré syndrome). Axonal loss reduces amplitude with near normal velocity (diabetic and toxic neuropathies). Late responses test proximal segments: the H reflex is the electrical analog of the ankle jerk and is delayed or absent in S1 radiculopathy; F waves assess motor roots.
Needle electromyography (EMG) records muscle activity at rest and with contraction. Normal resting muscle is silent. After denervation, fibrillation potentials and positive sharp waves appear, but only after about 2 to 3 weeks (earlier in paraspinal muscles, later in distal limb muscles), so EMG is usually deferred until about 3 weeks after onset. Chronic reinnervation produces large, long, polyphasic motor unit potentials with reduced recruitment; myopathy produces small, short, polyphasic potentials with early recruitment.
| Lesion | Sensory nerve action potential (SNAP) | Paraspinal EMG | Limb EMG |
|---|---|---|---|
| Radiculopathy (root, proximal to the dorsal root ganglion) | Normal, because the sensory cell body and its distal axon are intact | Abnormal (posterior ramus arises from the root) | Denervation in that myotome |
| Plexopathy | Reduced | Normal | Denervation in the plexus distribution |
| Peripheral nerve lesion or polyneuropathy | Reduced (focal or length dependent) | Normal | Denervation in that nerve's muscles |
When to order and when to refer
Order a test when its result will change management. Testing helps most when the pretest probability is intermediate: at very low probability a positive result is likely false, and at very high probability a negative result is unlikely to dissuade you. Before ordering, ask what you will do with a positive and with a negative result. Scope of practice for ordering laboratory tests and special studies varies by jurisdiction; where it allows, the chiropractor orders tests to screen for conditions outside the scope of chiropractic care and refers when results indicate.
| Finding | Typical action |
|---|---|
| Potassium over about 6.0 or under 2.5 mEq/L, sodium under about 120, glucose over about 400 or under 50 mg/dL, calcium over about 13 mg/dL | Same day or emergency referral (arrhythmia, seizure, coma risk) |
| Elevated troponin, or ST elevation on ECG | Emergency services |
| Hemoglobin under about 7 g/dL, platelets under about 20,000, blasts on smear, INR over about 5 | Urgent medical referral; avoid forceful procedures |
| Iron deficiency anemia in a man or postmenopausal woman | Referral for gastrointestinal evaluation |
| Raised ESR or CRP with back pain and red flags; M protein; high calcium | Prompt referral for evaluation of infection, malignancy or myeloma |
| Newly found diabetes, uncontrolled hypertension, abnormal thyroid tests, rising creatinine, positive infectious serology | Referral to the primary care provider for management, with continued chiropractic co-management as appropriate |
Communicate referrals in writing, with the findings, the reason and the urgency, and document the referral and the patient's response in the record.
Reference ranges cover 95 percent of healthy people, so many tests guarantee some false abnormals. Sensitivity (TP over all diseased) and specificity (TN over all healthy) belong to the test; predictive values depend on prevalence. SnNout: a negative sensitive test rules out; SpPin: a positive specific test rules in. On the ECG, a small box is 0.04 s, PR is 0.12 to 0.20 s and QRS under 0.12 s. Obstruction lowers FEV1/FVC; restriction lowers TLC. A T score of -2.5 or lower is osteoporosis. Radiculopathy spares the SNAP but affects paraspinal EMG, and denervation needs about 3 weeks to appear. Order tests that change management and refer when results demand it.
The chapter in one breath
- Urinalysis: red cell casts mean glomerulonephritis, white cell casts pyelonephritis, muddy brown casts ATN; a blood positive dipstick with no red cells means myoglobin or hemoglobin; the dipstick misses Bence Jones protein.
- Nitrite and leukocyte esterase indicate infection; fixed specific gravity of 1.010 indicates chronic kidney disease.
- Classify anemia by MCV; low ferritin with high TIBC is iron deficiency, which in adult men and postmenopausal women means GI blood loss until proven otherwise.
- B12 deficiency raises methylmalonic acid and homocysteine and can damage the dorsal columns; hemolysis raises LDH and indirect bilirubin and lowers haptoglobin.
- PT/INR monitors warfarin, aPTT heparin and hemophilia; D dimer is a sensitive rule out test; a very high ESR suggests myeloma, giant cell arteritis or polymyalgia rheumatica.
- Diabetes: fasting glucose 126 or more, OGTT 200 or more, or HbA1c 6.5 percent or more.
- ALT is liver specific; ALP with normal GGT means bone; osteoporosis has normal labs, Paget disease a very high ALP, primary hyperparathyroidism high calcium with high PTH.
- Troponin rises in 3 to 4 hours and stays up 7 to 10 days; TSH screens for thyroid disease.
- Negative ANA nearly excludes SLE; anti-CCP is specific for RA; HLA-B27 has low predictive value without a strong clinical picture.
- Sensitivity and specificity belong to the test; predictive values shift with prevalence (SnNout, SpPin).
- Obstructive spirometry lowers FEV1/FVC; restrictive disease, including ankylosing spondylitis, lowers TLC; T score -2.5 or lower is osteoporosis.
- In radiculopathy the SNAP is normal and paraspinal EMG abnormal; EMG denervation appears after about 3 weeks.
Words worth knowing
| Term | What it means |
|---|---|
| Specific gravity | A measure of urine concentration relative to water; fixed near 1.010 when the kidneys can no longer concentrate or dilute. |
| Cast | A cylindrical mold of protein formed in the renal tubule, whose contents reveal disease within the kidney. |
| Leukocyte esterase | An enzyme from white cells detected on dipstick, indicating pyuria. |
| Myoglobinuria | Muscle pigment in the urine after rhabdomyolysis, giving a positive blood dipstick without red cells. |
| Bence Jones protein | Free immunoglobulin light chains in the urine of multiple myeloma, missed by the routine dipstick. |
| Mean corpuscular volume | The average red cell size, used to classify anemia as microcytic, normocytic or macrocytic. |
| Ferritin | The main iron storage protein; low in iron deficiency and raised as an acute phase reactant. |
| Reticulocyte | A young red cell; a high count shows the marrow is responding to blood loss or hemolysis. |
| Hypersegmented neutrophil | A neutrophil with six or more nuclear lobes, a sign of B12 or folate deficiency. |
| Haptoglobin | A plasma protein that binds free hemoglobin; low in intravascular hemolysis. |
| Rouleaux | Red cells stacked like coins because of high plasma protein, typical of multiple myeloma. |
| Left shift | An increase in immature band neutrophils, signaling acute bacterial infection. |
| INR | The international normalized ratio, a standardized prothrombin time used to monitor warfarin. |
| D dimer | A fibrin breakdown product; a normal value helps rule out thrombosis when clinical probability is low. |
| Erythrocyte sedimentation rate | The distance red cells settle in one hour, a slow, nonspecific marker of inflammation. |
| Anion gap | Sodium minus chloride and bicarbonate, normally about 8 to 12; high in ketoacidosis, lactic acidosis and uremia. |
| HbA1c | Glycated hemoglobin reflecting average glucose over about 2 to 3 months; 6.5 percent or more indicates diabetes. |
| Alkaline phosphatase | An enzyme from liver and bone; very high in Paget disease and raised in cholestasis and osteoblastic lesions. |
| Troponin | A cardiac muscle protein released after myocardial injury, the preferred marker of infarction. |
| C reactive protein | A rapidly responding acute phase protein made by the liver in response to interleukin 6. |
| Anti-CCP | Antibody to citrullinated peptides, highly specific for rheumatoid arthritis. |
| Antinuclear antibody | An autoantibody against nuclear components; a sensitive screening test for lupus. |
| HLA-B27 | A genetic marker carried by most patients with ankylosing spondylitis but also by many healthy people. |
| Sensitivity | The proportion of people with a disease whom the test correctly identifies as positive. |
| Specificity | The proportion of people without a disease whom the test correctly identifies as negative. |
| Positive predictive value | The probability that a person with a positive test truly has the disease; falls as prevalence falls. |
| T score | Bone density in standard deviations from young adult peak; -2.5 or lower defines osteoporosis. |
| Sensory nerve action potential | The recorded response of a sensory nerve; preserved in radiculopathy and reduced in plexus or peripheral nerve lesions. |
| Fibrillation potential | Spontaneous discharge of a denervated muscle fiber seen on EMG about 2 to 3 weeks after nerve injury. |